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July 30, 2013 at 12:57 pm
#53882
Yes that looks correct Tom.
If I’m understanding your post you are using equal dia. (5″) driven and driving pulleys on the counter shaft. If this is the case then the countershaft is basically canceled out of the equation and you would get the same rpm of 1725 going directly from the 1″ motor pulley to the 2″ lathe spindle pulley.
Hope this helps Tom,
Bob